The stun-gun salesmen have repeatedly claimed or implied that there is absolutely "zero" cause-and-effect relationship between any given taser deployment and any apparently-associated death. They base this outrageous claim on a pyramid of mistakes, falsehoods and deceptions - as have been exposed one after the other on this blog, and by others examing the same topic.
The stun-gun salesmen have depended upon the unfortunate fact that any taser-associated death leaves few if any explicit postmortem clues. Individual deaths are therefore typically assigned to long-standing pre-existing medical or mental-health conditions. The typically very close temporal ordering between the taser application and the onset of death is explained away as "a mere coincidence".
Too bad for them that they overlooked the built-in experimental control: The time during every taser incident before the taser actually hits the subject. Or those taser incidents where the taser is displayed, but not actually fired. Or those taser incidents where the taser darts both miss the subject (and the circuit is not completed via alternate mode ground path).
The simple observation of the taser's "Curious Temporal Asymmetry" reveals that there obviously IS (in general) a cause-and-effect relationship between taser hits and the occasional onset of death.
See the taser's "Curious Temporal Asymmetry" for the detailed argument. [LINK]
Disclaimer: Now, to be fair, if they can pull-up several thousand police taser-use reports where the subjects fell over dead (of "excited delirium", LOL) at the pre-deployment verbal warning, "Taser, Taser, Taser!!", then I'll be more than happy to accept their position as being potentially valid. I'm not expecting them to be able to find very many such reports.
By the way, they've had about a year to publish a rebuttal to this simple observation. I'm not aware that they made any such rebuttal.
They certainly have the right to remain silent, but we have the right to draw our own conclusions about taser-death cause-and-effect.
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